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Authentic 200-201 Exam Dumps PDF - Jul-2023 Updated
The Cisco 200-201 exam consists of 120 questions and has a time limit of 120 minutes. The exam is available in English and Japanese and can be taken at any Pearson VUE testing center worldwide. The exam assesses the candidate's ability to identify and analyze security threats, implement security controls, and use various security tools and technologies. Passing the exam validates the candidate's knowledge and skills in cybersecurity operations and demonstrates their readiness to work in a cybersecurity role. The Cisco 200-201 certification is a valuable asset for professionals who want to start their career in cybersecurity and for those who want to advance their skills and knowledge in this field.
The Cisco 200-201 exam is a vendor-specific exam that is focused on Cisco's cybersecurity operations fundamentals. The exam covers a wide range of topics, including network security concepts, network security technologies, security monitoring, and threat analysis. This exam is intended for individuals who are looking to gain a basic understanding of cybersecurity operations in a Cisco environment.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Which technology should be used to implement a solution that makes routing decisions based on HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, and SSL session ID attributes?
- A. IIS
- B. AWS
- C. Proxy server
- D. Load balancer
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Load Balancing: HTTP(S) load balancing is one of the oldest forms of load balancing. This form of load balancing relies on layer 7, which means it operates in the application layer. This allows routing decisions based on attributes like HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, SSL session ID, and HTML form data.
Load balancing applies to layers 4-7 in the seven-layer Open System Interconnection (OSI) model. Its capabilities are: L4. Directing traffic based on network data and transport layer protocols, e.g., IP address and TCP port. L7. Adds content switching to load balancing, allowing routing decisions depending on characteristics such as HTTP header, uniform resource identifier, SSL session ID, and HTML form data.
GSLB. Global Server Load Balancing expands L4 and L7 capabilities to servers in different sites
NEW QUESTION # 71
What is the difference between discretionary access control (DAC) and role-based access control (RBAC)?
- A. DAC requires explicit authorization for a given user on a given object, and RBAC requires specific conditions.
- B. DAC administrators pass privileges to users and groups, and in RBAC, permissions are applied to specific groups
- C. RBAC is an extended version of DAC where you can add an extra level of authorization based on time.
- D. RBAC access is granted when a user meets specific conditions, and in DAC, permissions are applied on user and group levels.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 72
What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag in the NetFlow log session?
- A. The ACK flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the RST flag responds when the data for the payload is complete
- B. The RST flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the ACK flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection
- C. The RST flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the ACK flag responds when the data for the payload is complete
- D. The ACK flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the RST flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 73
A security incident occurred with the potential of impacting business services. Who performs the attack?
- A. bug bounty hunter
- B. direct competitor
- C. malware author
- D. threat actor
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 74
What is threat hunting?
- A. Attempting to deliberately disrupt servers by altering their availability
- B. Pursuing competitors and adversaries to infiltrate their system to acquire intelligence data.
- C. Managing a vulnerability assessment report to mitigate potential threats.
- D. Focusing on proactively detecting possible signs of intrusion and compromise.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 75
One of the objectives of information security is to protect the CIA of information and systems.
What does CIA mean in this context?
- A. confidentiality, integrity, and availability
- B. confidentiality, identity, and availability
- C. confidentiality, identity, and authorization
- D. confidentiality, integrity, and authorization
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Security Concepts
NEW QUESTION # 76
What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images?
- A. Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence.
- B. Tampered images are used as evidence.
- C. Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.
- D. Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 77
Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence?
- A. indirect
- B. corroborative
- C. probabilistic
- D. best
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
Corroborating evidence (or corroboration) is evidence that tends to support a theory or an assumption deduced by some initial evidence. This corroborating evidence confirms the proposition. Cisco CyberOps Associate CBROPS 200-201 Official Cert Guide
NEW QUESTION # 78
Which NIST IR category stakeholder is responsible for coordinating incident response among various business units, minimizing damage, and reporting to regulatory agencies?
- A. management
- B. PSIRT
- C. CSIRT
- D. public affairs
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Security Policies and Procedures
NEW QUESTION # 79
What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?
- A. Deep packet inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and stateful inspection requires less human intervention.
- B. Stateful inspection verifies data at the transport layer and deep packet inspection verifies data at the application layer
- C. Stateful inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and deep packet inspection requires less human intervention.
- D. Deep packet inspection gives insights up to Layer 7, and stateful inspection gives insights only up to Layer 4.
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 80 
Refer to the exhibit. What information is depicted?
- A. network discovery event
- B. IPS event data
- C. NetFlow data
- D. IIS data
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Security Monitoring
NEW QUESTION # 81
Refer to the exhibit.
What must be interpreted from this packet capture?
- A. IP address 192.168.88.149 is communicating with 192.168 88.12 with a source port 80 to destination port 49098 using TCP protocol.
- B. IP address 192.168.88.149 is communicating with 192.168.88.12 with a source port 49098 to destination port 80 using TCP protocol.
- C. IP address 192.168.88 12 is communicating with 192 168 88 149 with a source port 74 to destination port 49098 using TCP protocol
- D. IP address 192.168.88.12 is communicating with 192 168 88 149 with a source port 49098 to destination port 80 using TCP protocol.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 82
Refer to the exhibit.
In which Linux log file is this output found?
- A. var/log/var.log
- B. /var/log/auth.log
- C. /var/log/authorization.log
- D. /var/log/dmesg
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 83
What is a difference between SIEM and SOAR?
- A. SIEM predicts and prevents security alerts, while SOAR checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.
- B. SOAR predicts and prevents security alerts, while SIEM checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.
- C. SlEM's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SOAR is more focused on security operations automation and response.
- D. SOAR's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SIEM is more focused on security operations automation and response.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 84
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two elements in the table are parts of the 5-tuple? (Choose two.)
- A. Source Port
- B. Initiator IP
- C. Initiator User
- D. Ingress Security Zone
- E. First Packet
Answer: A,B
NEW QUESTION # 85
What is indicated by an increase in IPv4 traffic carrying protocol 41 ?
- A. attempts to tunnel IPv6 traffic through an IPv4 network
- B. unauthorized peer-to-peer traffic
- C. deployment of a GRE network on top of an existing Layer 3 network
- D. additional PPTP traffic due to Windows clients
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 86
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?
- A. A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.
- B. There are three active data exfiltration alerts.
- C. A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.
- D. A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
"EX" = exfiltration
And there are three.
Also the "suspect long flow" and "suspect data heading" suggest, for example, DNS exfiltration
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/security/stealthwatch/management_console/smc_users_guide/SW_6 page 177.
NEW QUESTION # 87
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