[Q95-Q119] Get New 2025 Cloud Security Alliance CCSK Exam Dumps Bundle On flat Updated Dumps!

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Get New 2025 Cloud Security Alliance exam CCSK Dumps Bundle On flat Updated Dumps!

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NEW QUESTION # 95
Which cloud deployment model involves a cloud and a datacenter, bound together by technology to enable data and application portability?

  • A. Private cloud
  • B. Public cloud
  • C. Hybrid cloud
  • D. Multi-cloud

Answer: C

Explanation:
Thehybrid clouddeployment model involves integrating a private cloud (or on-premises datacenter) with a public cloud, bound together by technology that enablesdata and application portability. This allows workloads to move seamlessly between environments, leveraging the benefits of both private and public clouds.
From theCCSK v5.0 Study Guide, Domain 1 (Cloud Computing Concepts and Architectures), Section 1.3:
"A hybrid cloud combines on-premises infrastructure (or a private cloud) with a public cloud, integrated through technology that allows data and application portability. This model enables organizations to maintain sensitive workloads on-premises while leveraging the scalability of public cloud services." Option A (Hybrid cloud) is the correct answer.
Option B (Public cloud) is incorrect because it involves only cloud provider resources, not a datacenter.
Option C (Multi-cloud) is incorrect because it refers to using multiple public cloud providers, not a datacenter.
Option D (Private cloud) is incorrect because it does not inherently include integration with a public cloud.
References:
CCSK v5.0 Study Guide, Domain 1, Section 1.3: Cloud Deployment Models.


NEW QUESTION # 96
APIs and web services require extensive hardening and must assume attacks from authenticated and unauthenticated adversaries.

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 97
ENISA: A reason for risk concerns of a cloud provider being acquired is:

  • A. Mass layoffs may occur
  • B. Provider may change physical location
  • C. Resource isolation may fail
  • D. Arbitrary contract termination by acquiring company
  • E. Non-binding agreements put at risk

Answer: E

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:


NEW QUESTION # 98
Which cloud service model allows users to access applications hosted and managed by the provider, with the user only needing to configure the application?

  • A. Platform as a Service (PaaS)
  • B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)
  • C. Database as a Service (DBaaS)
  • D. Software as a Service (SaaS)

Answer: D

Explanation:
SaaS enables users to access hosted applications managed by the provider, with only minor configuration by the customer. Reference: [CCSK Study Guide, Domain 1 - Service Models]


NEW QUESTION # 99
What is critical for securing serverless computing models in the cloud?

  • A. Disabling console access completely or using privileged access management
  • B. Validating the underlying container security
  • C. Placing serverless components behind application load balancers
  • D. Managing secrets and configuration with the least privilege

Answer: D

Explanation:
In serverless computing models, the primary security concern is ensuring that secrets (such as API keys, database credentials, etc.) and configuration settings are handled securely. The principle of least privilege means that these secrets and configurations should only be accessible by the minimum set of functions or services that truly need them, reducing the attack surface. Proper management of secrets and configurations ensures that unauthorized access or misuse is prevented.
Disabling console access completely or using privileged access management is important for securing any environment, but it is not specifically tied to serverless models. Validating the underlying container security is more relevant to containerized environments rather than serverless computing, which abstracts away infrastructure management. Placing serverless components behind application load balancers is useful for routing traffic but is not specifically critical for securing the serverless model itself. Managing secrets and access controls is a more direct concern for securing serverless environments.


NEW QUESTION # 100
In a cloud computing incident, what should be the initial focus of analysis due to the ephemeral nature of resources and centralized control mechanisms?

  • A. Management plane activity logs
  • B. Physical hardware access
  • C. Network perimeter monitoring
  • D. Endpoint protection status

Answer: A

Explanation:
In a cloud computing incident, the initial focus of analysis should be on the management plane activity logs due to the ephemeral nature of resources and centralized control mechanisms in cloud environments. The management plane controls and monitors the overall cloud infrastructure, and its activity logs provide crucial information about changes to configurations, access controls, resource provisioning, and administrative actions that can help identify the root cause of an incident.
Network perimeter monitoring and endpoint protection status are also important, but in cloud environments where resources can be rapidly provisioned and decommissioned, the management plane logs provide the most immediate insight into administrative actions and the overall state of the cloud environment.
Physical hardware access is generally the responsibility of the cloud provider and less relevant in the initial stages of a cloud incident analysis, especially when focusing on virtualized and managed resources.


NEW QUESTION # 101
Which of the following is NOT true about CSA Cloud control metrix (CCM)?

  • A. Contains security controls divided in several domains
  • B. Also includes controls related to processing of personal data.
  • C. Define the Cloud Audit Methodolog
  • D. Maps controls to existing standards like ISO 27001

Answer: C

Explanation:
Remember that CCM is a security framework and does not include any methodology The Cloud Security Alliance Cloud Controls Matrix(CCM) is an essential and up-to-date security controls framework that is addressed to the cloud community and stakeholders. A fundamental richness of the CCM is its ability to provide mapping and cross relationships with the main industry-accepted security


NEW QUESTION # 102
Single cloud assets are typically less resilient than in the case of traditional infrastructure.

  • A. False
  • B. True

Answer: B

Explanation:
Cloud platforms can be incredibly resilient. but single cloud assets are typically less resilient than in the case of traditional infrastructure. This is due to the inherently greater fragility of virtualized resources running in highly-complex environments.
Reference: CSA Security Guidelines V.4 (reproduced here for the educational purpose)


NEW QUESTION # 103
In preparing for cloud incident response, why is it crucial to establish a cloud deployment registry?

  • A. To list all cloud-compliant software
  • B. To document all cloud services APIs
  • C. To track incident support options, know account details, and contact information
  • D. To maintain a log of all incident response activities and have efficient reporting

Answer: C

Explanation:
Establishing a cloud deployment registry is crucial for cloud incident response because it helps track critical information related to the cloud environment, such as incident support options, account details, and contact information for cloud service providers (CSPs). This registry provides a central place where key details about cloud services and deployments are documented, allowing the incident response team to quickly access necessary information, escalate issues to the appropriate CSP support teams, and coordinate response efforts effectively.


NEW QUESTION # 104
Which principle reduces security risk by granting users only the permissions essential for their role?

  • A. Mandatory Access Control
  • B. Role-Based Access Control
  • C. Unlimited Access
  • D. Least-Privileged Access

Answer: D

Explanation:
The principle of least privilege limits access to only necessary permissions, reducing the risk of misuse and exposure of sensitive data. Reference: [CCSK v5 Curriculum, Domain 5 - IAM]


NEW QUESTION # 105
What are the primary security responsibilities of the cloud provider in compute virtualizations?

  • A. Enforce isolation and configure the security settings
  • B. Enforce isolation and maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure
  • C. Monitor and log workloads and configure the security settings
  • D. Enforce isolation and monitor and log workloads
  • E. Maintain a secure virtualization infrastructure and configure the security settings

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 106
What is a primary objective of cloud governance in an organization?

  • A. Simplifying scalability and automating resource management
  • B. Enhancing user experience and reducing latency
  • C. Implementing multi-tenancy and resource pooling.
  • D. To align cloud usage with corporate objectives

Answer: D

Explanation:
The primary objective of cloud governance in an organization is to align cloud usage with corporate objectives. Cloud governance ensures that the cloud resources, services, and strategies are used effectively and efficiently, supporting the organization's overall goals and priorities. It involves establishing policies, compliance measures, and management practices to ensure that cloud adoption and usage are aligned with business needs, security requirements, and regulatory obligations.
Implementing multi-tenancy and resource pooling is important for cloud infrastructure but is more related to the underlying technology rather than governance. Simplifying scalability and automating resource management are benefits of cloud environments, but they are more about cloud architecture and operations than governance. Enhancing user experience and reducing latency are concerns of performance optimization and user interface design, not the primary focus of cloud governance.


NEW QUESTION # 107
How does centralized logging simplify security monitoring and compliance?

  • A. It encrypts all logs to prevent unauthorized access.
  • B. It automatically resolves all detected security threats.
  • C. It decreases the amount of data that needs to be reviewed.
  • D. It consolidates logs into a single location.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Centralized logging aggregates logs in one location, making it easier to monitor, analyze, and comply with regulatory requirements. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 6 - Security Monitoring]


NEW QUESTION # 108
Which is the most common control used for Risk Transfer?

  • A. Insurance
  • B. Contracts
  • C. Web Application Firewall
  • D. SLA

Answer: A

Explanation:
Buying insurance is most common method of transferring risk.


NEW QUESTION # 109
Select the best definition of "compliance" from the options below.

  • A. The development of a routine that covers all necessary security measures.
  • B. The process of completing all forms and paperwork necessary to develop a defensible paper trail.
  • C. The diligent habits of good security practices and recording of the same.
  • D. The awareness and adherence to obligations, including the assessment and prioritization of corrective actions deemed necessary and appropriate.
  • E. The timely and efficient filing of security reports.

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 110
Which areas should be initially prioritized for hybrid cloud security?

  • A. IAM and networking
  • B. Cloud storage management and governance
  • C. Application development and deployment
  • D. Data center infrastructure and architecture

Answer: A

Explanation:
Identity and Access Management (IAM) and networking are essential for secure hybrid cloud environments, as they control access and communication across diverse environments. Reference: [Security Guidance v5, Domain 5 - IAM]


NEW QUESTION # 111
Which is the most important trust mechanism between cloud service provider and cloud customer?

  • A. Meeting SLA requirements
  • B. Audit reports
  • C. Contract
  • D. Logging and Monitoring reports

Answer: C

Explanation:
Contract is the most important document which defines trust and relationship between cloud service provider and the customer.


NEW QUESTION # 112
What's the best way for organizations to establish a foundation for safeguarding data, upholding privacy, and meeting regulatory requirements in cloud applications?

  • A. By deploying intrusion detection systems and monitoring
  • B. By integrating security at the architectural and design level
  • C. By implementing end-to-end encryption and multi-factor authentication
  • D. By conducting regular security audits and updates

Answer: B

Explanation:
The best way for organizations to establish a foundation for safeguarding data, upholding privacy, and meeting regulatory requirements in cloud applications is by integrating security at the architectural and design level. This approach ensures that security is built into the application from the start, rather than being added as an afterthought. By incorporating security features like encryption, access controls, and compliance measures during the design and development phases, organizations can better protect sensitive data, reduce vulnerabilities, and meet regulatory requirements more effectively.
While implementing encryption, multi-factor authentication, conducting audits, and deploying monitoring tools are also important, they are part of the overall security strategy rather than the foundational approach.
Integrating security into the architecture ensures a more comprehensive, proactive security posture.


NEW QUESTION # 113
If the management plane has been breached, you should confirm the templates/configurations for your infrastructure or applications have not also been compromised.

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 114
Ensuring the use of data and information complies with organizational policies, standards and strategy- including regulatory, contractual, and business objectives, known as:

  • A. Corporate Governance
  • B. Data Governance
  • C. IT Governance
  • D. Enterprise Governance

Answer: B

Explanation:
It is definition of Data Governance


NEW QUESTION # 115
ln which of the following cloud service models is the customer required to maintain the operating system?

  • A. IaaS
  • B. Public Cloud
  • C. SaaS
  • D. PaaS

Answer: A

Explanation:
According to "The NIST Definition of Cloud Computing," in IaaS, "the capability provided to the consumer is to provision processing, storage, networks, and other fundamental computing resources where the consumer is able to deploy and run arbitrary software, which can include OSs and applications. The consumer does not manage or control the underlying cloud infrastructure but has control over OSs, storage, and deployed applications; and possibly limited control of select networking components (e.g, host firewalls)."


NEW QUESTION # 116
What is a key benefit of using customer-managed encryption keys with cloud key management service (KMS)?

  • A. Customers retain control over their encryption keys
  • B. Customers can bypass the need for encryption
  • C. It reduces the computational load on the cloud service provider
  • D. Customers can share their encryption keys more easily

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer isB. Customers retain control over their encryption keys.
Usingcustomer-managed encryption keys (CMEK)with a cloudKey Management Service (KMS)allows the customer toretain full control over the encryption keysused to encrypt their data. This is crucial in maintaining data sovereignty, privacy, and compliance with regulatory requirements.
Key Benefits of Customer-Managed Encryption Keys:
Key Ownership and Control:Unlike cloud provider-managed keys, CMEK ensures that the customer has full authority over the key's lifecycle, including creation, rotation, and deletion.
Enhanced Security:Customers can enforce strict access controls and audit who accesses the keys.
Compliance:Many regulations (like GDPR or HIPAA) mandate that data owners maintain control over encryption keys.
Data Privacy:Even though the data is stored on the cloud, the provider cannot access unencrypted data without the customer's permission.
Flexibility:Customers can choose when to revoke or rotate keys, which directly impacts data availability and access.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A: Bypass the need for encryption:CMEK does not eliminate the need for encryption; it strengthens it by giving customers direct control.
C: Share encryption keys more easily:Sharing encryption keys can increase security risks, and CMEK is designed to restrict, not ease, key sharing.
D: Reduces computational load on the cloud service provider:CMEK does not impact the computational load.
It focuses on key management and control rather than reducing processing overhead.
Real-World Example:
InAWS KMS, using CMEK allows customers to bring their own keys (BYOK) and manage them directly through AWS Key Management Service. Similar practices exist inGoogle Cloud KMSandAzure Key Vault, where customers can generate and control their own encryption keys.
Practical Use Case:
A healthcare provider using a cloud service to store patient records may use CMEK to ensure that sensitive data is encrypted under keys they control, ensuring compliance with regulations likeHIPAA.
References:
CSA Security Guidance v4.0, Domain 11: Data Security and Encryption
Cloud Computing Security Risk Assessment (ENISA) - Key Management and Encryption Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) v3.0.1 - Data Protection and Encryption Domain


NEW QUESTION # 117
What is a potential concern of using Security-as-a-Service (SecaaS)?

  • A. Scaling and costs
  • B. Lack of visibility
  • C. Insulation of clients
  • D. Deployment flexibility
  • E. Intelligence sharing

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 118
What is the most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application?

  • A. Relying solely on secure coding practices by the developers without any testing
  • B. Performing code reviews of the application source code just prior to release
  • C. Conducting automated and manual security testing throughout the development
  • D. Waiting until the application is fully developed and performing a single penetration test

Answer: C

Explanation:
The most effective way to identify security vulnerabilities in an application is to conduct automated and manual security testing throughout the development lifecycle. This approach ensures that security is continuously evaluated at every stage of development, rather than waiting until the end. Automated tools can help identify common vulnerabilities quickly, while manual testing allows for more in-depth analysis, including testing for complex, contextual security issues. This proactive and ongoing approach reduces the risk of vulnerabilities being overlooked and helps ensure that security is integrated into the application from the start.
Performing code reviews just prior to release is valuable, but it's not comprehensive enough. Security testing should be done early and continuously, not just before release. Relying solely on secure coding practices is important but not sufficient. Even with secure coding practices, testing is essential to identify vulnerabilities.
Waiting for a single penetration test after development is not effective because waiting until the end can allow many vulnerabilities to go unnoticed during development, leaving the application exposed.


NEW QUESTION # 119
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